Did Old Testament Law Force a female to Marry Her Rapist?
Posted Monday, July 26th, 2021 by Alicia Martinello

“If you had been maybe not currently engaged once the rape happened, both you and your rapist had been expected to marry one another, minus the potential for divorce proceedings.” –Rachel Held Evans, composer of per year of Biblical Womanhood

“The regulations [in Deut 22:23-29] usually do not in fact prohibit rape; they institutionalize it…” –Harold Washington, St. Paul class of Theology

“Your objective divinely Bible that is inspired is of sanctioned rape.” –Official Twitter account associated with the Church of Satan.

It is an accusation that is frequent Scripture’s remedy for ladies.

It is it certainly exactly what the Bible claims?

Like all law that is biblical Deuteronomy 22:28-29 reflects God’s character; once we start to see the meaning of what the law states, we come across one’s heart of this Lawgiver. This legislation defines how a community of Israel reacted when an unbetrothed virgin ended up being violated through premarital intercourse that is sexual. [1]

The verb utilized to describe just what took place to your woman is ??????? (tapas). Tapas methods to “lay hold [of],” [2] or “wield.” [3] Like ????? (?azaq, the phrase for “force) found in vv. 25-27, tapas can be translated as “seize.” [4] Unlike ?azaq, however, tapas does perhaps not carry the exact same connotation of force. As you Hebrew scholar explains, tapas doesn’t, in as well as itself, infer assault; this means she had been “held,” not necessarily “attacked.’ [5]

There’s a difference that is delicate both of these verbs, however it makes all the difference. Tapas is normally used to explain a capture. [6] Tapas also appears in Genesis 39:12; whenever Potiphar’s wife attempted to seduce Joseph, she seized (tapas) him to wear his resolve down. This is certainly distinct from ?azaq, which defines an overpowering that is forcible. Daniel Block notes that, unlike the statutory legislation in verses 25-27, this legislation has neither a cry for assistance, nor a free account of male physical physical violence. [7] It’s likely that the lady in verses 28-29 experienced overwhelming persuasion, possibly an erosion of her resolve, not fundamentally an assault that is sexual.

This will not mitigate the severity for the work. This woman ended up being certainly violated; she ended up being humiliated and dishonored. [8] but, verses 28-29 usually do not necessarily suggest she was raped. Had the author of Deuteronomy, Moses, (while the Holy Spirit whom inspired him) [9] meant to depict this as a intimate assault, this indicates not likely which he will have chosen tapas in the place of ?azaq – the verb utilized prior to it. Because of the lexical differences between ?azaq and tapas, and just how closely they come in those two consecutive laws, it appears much more likely why these two distinct verbs are supposed to convey two distinct situations.

Further, tapas does not can be found in either of biblical stories describing intimate attack that had been written following the legislation. [10] When authors that are later biblical a rape, they used the ?azaq (which appeared vv. 25-27) rather than tapas. We are able to reasonably conclude that the biblical narrators (and once again, the Spirit that is holy the real difference in meaning between ?azaq and tapas inside the context of intimate physical violence, and so they used these verbs due to their definitions in your mind. [11]

Yet another detail: Unlike the last two guidelines in vv. 23-29, this points down that the guy while the girl had been caught within the act. [12] Whereas verses 25-27 reference the guy as well as the girl as split individuals, verses 28-29 relate to them as a device. [13] One Hebrew scholar views this detail as another explanation to think vv. 28-29 didn’t describe a rape, but consent that is rather mutual. [14]

According to all of the evidence, we can conclude that the virgin that is unbetrothed verses 28-29 had been not always the victim of an attack. Consequently, to declare that the Bible needed a female to marry her rapist is just a misinterpretation – and a misrepresentation – with this legislation. Once more, this is simply not to state that she had not been mistreated or taken advantageous asset of; she most definitely had been. Yet, this legislation does not carry the exact same connotation of force once the past situation in verses 25-27.

This law ensured that she would not be objectified and discarded for the young woman in Israel. Her seducer ended up being necessary to make restitution along with her daddy, ended up being compelled to marry her, and ended up being forbidden to divorce her. In a tradition in which a woman’s wedding equated to her monetary provision, this legislation ensured her protection. Further, the lady encountered no consequences that are punitive being seduced. Presuming the work ended up being, in fact, consensual, she had not been ostracized and shamed.

Under Hebrew legislation, a guy was forbidden to exploit a female as an item of enjoyment. He had been held accountable publicly for his indiscretion and held accountable on her future health. [15] put simply, he couldn’t utilize her and lose her. Not even close to exploiting or women that are oppressing this passage indicates that biblical legislation held guys in charge of their intimate behavior.

[1] Deut 22:28-29 varies through the two laws and regulations simply before it, for the reason that it generally does not name a particular location to look for the woman’s consent.

[2] Koehler and Baumgartner, HALOT, vol. 4, ed. and trans. M. E. J. Richardson (Leiden: E.J. Brill, 1994), s.v. “???????”.

[5] Moshe Weinfeld, Deuteronomy and also the Deuteronomic School (Winona Lake, IN: Eisenbrauns, 1992), 286.

[6] Koehler and Baumgartner, HALOT, vol. 4, s.v. “???????”. This verb seems in 1 Kings 18:40, whenever Elijah commanded the visitors to seize (tapas) the prophets of Baal, along with 2 Kings 14:13, whenever King Joash captured Amaziah.

[8] Lyn M. Bechtel, “What If Dinah Is Certainly Not Raped?” JSOT (June 1, 1994): 26.

[10] Cf. the discussion from the Degradation of an Virgin that is unbetrothed 22:28-29) as well as its usage of ???????.

[11] This assumes that later on biblical writers were intimately acquainted with and sometimes interacted with previous texts—what that is biblical scholars relate to as intertextuality, defined right here as “the interrelationships involving hookupdate.net/nl/sweet-pea-overzicht the different publications associated with the OT.” John M. Sailhamer, Introduction to Old Testament Theology: A Canonical Approach (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1995), 156.

[12] Daniel I. Block, The Gospel in accordance with Moses: Theological and Ethical Reflections in the Book of Deuteronomy (Eugene, OR: Cascade Books, 2012), 163.

[13] Koehler and Baumgartner, HALOT, vol. 2, s.v. “?????.” The utilization of ????? “to find” in this legislation underscores this aspect. Relating to HALOT, this instance of ????? must be rendered “to be discovered,“caught or” in the act.” Here, ????? carries the exact same connotation as the look in verse 22, which defines a consensual work.

[14] Weinfeld, Deuteronomy therefore the Deuteronomic class, 286.

[15] Ibid., 164. As Block describes, “the man must satisfy most of the marital duties that include the liberties to sexual activity, plus in therefore doing guarantee the safety associated with girl.” Block, The Gospel In Accordance With Moses, 163.

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